30 Questions on Principles of Biology - Exam 3 | BIOL 1105, Exams of Biology

Download 30 Questions on Principles of Biology - Exam 3 | BIOL 1105 and more Exams Biology in PDF only on Docsity! Exam 3, form B 1. Photosynthesis begins with ___. 1. the nuclei of all plant cells. 2. The stroma inside a chloroplast 3. The stroma inside the stroma lamella 4. the plasmodesmata 5. The organelles in the chloroplast membrane. 6. thylakoids and their membranes. 2. The oxygen we need for respiration is produced by photosynthesis (T/F) and the oxygen comes from ___. 1. T; The O2 in CO2 2. T; the O in H2O 3. F; the O2 in H2CO3 produced from the catabolic plant reaction H2O + CO2  H2CO3  CH2O + O2 4. F; the O2 in CO2 from catabolic reactions 3. At this time of year, leaves on deciduous trees are turning from green to some shade of red or yellow. This is because ___. 1. chlorophyll is being converted to carotenoid pigments. 2. chlorophyll is being absorbed, leaving the carotenoid pigments which were in the leaf all summer, but masked by the more abundant chlorophyll molecules. 4. The photosystem units are located in _____ and are held together by ______. 1. the chloroplast membrane; phospholipid molecules 2. the thylakoid membrane; transmembrane proteins 3. the thylakoid membrane; hemidesmosomes 4. the stroma; stroma lamella 5. The tail of this molecule, which is a _____ molecule, would be in the _____ portion of the ______. 1. protein; lipophobic area; phospholipid membrane of the chloroplast. 2. chlorophyll; hydrophilic area; phospholipid portion of the thylakoid membrane. 3. cholesterol; lipophilic; transmembrane protein in the stroma lamella. 4. chlorophyll; lipophilic; transmembrane protein in the thylakoid membrane. 6. The overall flow of electrons in the light reaction is from: 1. PSI to PSII 2. Antenna pigments to the reaction center 3. H2O to NADPH 4. H2O to CO2 5. H2O to ATP 7. Consider the figure to the right. Which diagram illustrates the conversion of light energy to chemical energy? 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 8. _____ demonstrated that plants produced a flammable material to the atmosphere which ____ labeled as oxygen. Subsequently, ____ proposed that plants use sunlight to split CO2 into Carbon and Oxygen. 1. Ingen-Housz; Priestly; Lavoisier 2. Priestly; Lavoisier; Ingen-Housz 3. van Helmont; Blackman; van Niel 4. van Niel; van Helmont; Blackman 9. PSI and ATP synthase are located on the ____ so that the end products of energy are dumped directly into the ____ where the ____ occurs. 1. thylakoid membrane; thylakoid space (lumen); Calvin Cycle 2. Chloroplast membrane; cytoplasm; Krebs Cycle 3. stroma lamella; stroma; Calvin Cycle 4. Stroma lamella; thylakoid space; light independent reactions 10. The use of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase involves an extra step in photosynthesis, and therefore more ___. The extra energy source comes from ___. 1. NADP; Crassulacean Acid Metabolism 2. ATP; non-cyclic photophosphorylation 3. NADPH; Krebs Cycle 4. ATP; cyclic photophosphorylation 5. ADP; substrate phosphorylation with phosphoenolpyruvate-P 11. Chemiosmosis is the process by which _____ by _____ passing through _____. 1. ATP is formed; ADP; ATP synthase 2. ATP is formed; H+ protons; ATP synthase 3. ATP is formed; H+ protons; a hydrogen proton pump on the b6-f complex 4. NADH is produced; NADP+; NADPH synthase 12. The direct output of the Calvin Cycle is: 1. ATP 2. NADPH 3. NADP+ 4. Rubisco 5. Ribulose 1,5-biphosphate 6. Glyceraldehyde 3-Phosphate 7. Glucose 8. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase 9. Phosphoglyceraldehyde 13. The ATP used to convert Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) to RuBP was produced by _____. 1. NADPH through PSII 2. the conversion of PGA to G3P 3. the light reactions associated with the thylakoid membrane. 4. the dark reactions associated with the thylakoid membrane. 5. respiration pathways associated with mitochondria. 31. Complementary DNA strands are held together by ___; whereas, nucleotides are bonded together to form the strand by ___. 1. hydrogen bonds; phosphodiester bonds 2. Hydrogen bonds; ionic bonds 3. Ionic bonds; hydrogen bonds 4. peptide bonds; hydroxyl bonds 5. Phosphodiester bonds; hydrogen bonds 32. Of the DNA polymerases that synthesize DNA, they all share on common feature and that is they: 1. use a DNA primer, called DNA primase. 2. do not require a primer like RNA replication does. 3. synthesize DNA in the 3’-to-5’ direction. 4. synthesize DNA in the 5’-to-3’ direction. 5. can, under certain conditions, synthesize DNA in either direction. 33. If Meselson and Stahl had allowed their experiment to go five rounds, rather than two, how many bands would there have been? 1. Five 2. Four 3. Three 4. Two 5. One 6. None 34. Which of the following statements is NOT a part of the Watson-Crick model? 1. DNA is composed of two individual DNA molecules. 2. Purines bind to pyrimidines through Hydrogen bonds. 3. DNA forms a double helix. 4. The two strands are oriented in parallel (5’-to-3’). 5. The two strands are oriented in antiparallel to each other (5’-to-3’ in one direction and 3’-to-5’ in the other). 35. Which of the following is responsible for initiating DNA replication? 1. Ligase 2. Helicase 3. The Replisome 4. DNA polymerase 5. A Replicon 6. A primase consisting of a RNA polymerase 7. A primase consisting of a DNA polymerase 36. Primase 1. Processivity 37. Replisome 2. Joins DNA strands after RNA primer has been removed by DNA Pol I 38. DNA Pol I 3. Major enzyme that replicates new DNA 39. DNA Pol III 4. Stabilizes newly created single strand regions 40. DNA Ligase 5. A high speed replication organelle 41. –clamp 6. Erases the RNA polymerase primer and fills in correct DNA nucleotides 7. Telomerase 8. Tells DNA Polymerase III where to begin replicating. 42. One strand of DNA has the sequence 5’-ATTCCG-3’. The complementary strand for this is: 1. 5’-ATTUUC-5’ 2. 3’-ATTCCG-5’ 3. 5’-ACCTTA-3’ 4. 5’-CGGAAT-3’ 5. 3’-GCCTTA-5’ 6. 3’-TAAGGC-3’ 7. 5’-TAAGGC-5’ 8. 3’-TAAGGC-5’ 43. Telomerase ____ 1. protects the ends of chromosomes. 2. is an exonuclease and consumes the ends of the chromosomes that have lost their telomeres. 3. is an exonuclease that unwinds the double helix and initiates replication. 4. is an enzyme that rebuilds telomeres. 44. _____ repeated Griffith’s experiment in 1944 and demonstrated DNA was the transforming material Griffith had discovered (T/F) and these researchers accomplished this task by using _____. 1. Hershey and Chase; F; Proteinases 2. Hershey and Chase; T; DNA digesting enzymes 3. Franklin, Wilkins, and Watson; F; Okazaki fragments and Okazaki enzymes 4. Franklin, Crick, and Pauling; T; Okazaki enzymes 5. Avery; MacLeod, and McCarthy; T; digestive enzymes. 45. Meselson-Stahl confirmed the replication of DNA via the ___ model using ___ and ___. 1. conservative; 32P; a radiometer to measure the radiation. 2. semiconservative; nitrogen isotopes; ultracentrifugation 3. dispersive; nitrogen isotopes; radiometric decay technique 4. dispersive; 32P; ultracentrifugation 46. In the following diagram of the Meselson-Stahl Experiment, a time period of 20 minutes was used to separate samples. Which of the following statements best explains why this time period was used? 1. The used E.coli and E.coli reproduces every 20 minutes (approximately). 2. They used Streptococcus aureus and after 40 minutes, these bacteria become too toxic to handle. 3. These investigators were using radioactive cesium and after 40 minutes, the liquid could explode. 4. The investigators were using 32P, a highly toxic radioactive material, and after 40 minutes, the technicians could have received a dangerous dose of radiation just from handling the material. “The everyday kindness of the back roads more than makes up for the acts of greed in the headlines.” Charles Kuralt, 1934-1997 47. If DNA has been damaged, it cannot be repaired (T/F); therefore when this happens, the cells has no choice other than to let the cell continue to develop with the damaged DNA (T/F). 1. T; T 2. T; F 3. F; T 4. F; F 48. How do sister chromatids differ from homologous chromosomes? 1. Sister chromatids only represent the maternal genetic contribution. 2. Homologous chromosomes are exact copies of each other, but sister chromatids are only similar to each other. 3. Homologous chromosomes are similar to each other, but sister chromatids are exact copies of each other. 4. Sister chromatids represent only half the genetic information stored in a chromosome. 5. Sister chromatids are pulled to new daughter cells in Anaphase, but homologous chromosomes are not. 49. Prokaryotes reproduce by ___ and do not require ___. 1. mitosis; DNA replication because the chromosome is circular rather than linear. 2. parthenogenesis; FtsZ protein 3. trisomy; polymerase 4. binary fission; assembly or disassembly of a nuclear membrane. 5. binary fission; DNA replication. 50. A chromosome is made up of chromatin. What is the percentage of protein to DNA? 1. 50% protein; 50% DNA 2. 60% protein; 40% DNA 3. 40% protein; 60% DNA 4. 20% protein; 80% DNA 51. A _____ consists of microtubules and is responsible for moving homologous chromosomes to opposite ends of a dividing cell. The point on the chromatids where the chromatids join is the location of the _____ and where the _____ is located. 1. centriole; centromere; kinetochore 2. centrosome; centriole; FtsZ protein 3. kinetochore; centrosome; centriole 4. centrosome; centriole; kinetochore 52. Mitomycin C is an anticancer drugs that stops cell division by inserting itself into the strands of DNA and binding the strands together. The most likely place where this action would occur would be _____. 1. late G1, early S phase 2. Late G2 3. Prophase 4. Metaphase 5. Anaphase 53. Epidermal Growth Factor is found in ____ and would be responsible for _____. 1. the kidneys; more red blood cell production 2. the kidneys; platelet formation 3. saliva; interrupting the cell cycle through alteration of DNA structure 4. saliva; stimulating certain cells to divide by over-riding mitotic control mechanisms 54. The protein, p53, plays a key role at the ____ checkpoint. Its role is to monitor ____. If there are problems, p53 can cause ____. If p53 is damaged, ____ usually results. 1. G1/S; DNA integrity; apoptosis; uncontrolled cell division 2. Spindle; chromatid alignment; repair of cohesion; normal cell division 3. G2/M; DNA replication; repairs of DNA polymerase; normal cell division 4. Anaphase/Telophase; microtubule tension; resynthesis of the microtubule; metaphase collapse. 55. In the process of mitosis, one of the last structures to leave and one of the first structures to form is/are ____ because it/they are the site of ____ which produce ____. 1. microtubules; ATP synthesis; cyclins 2. nuclear membrane; nucleopores; cyclins 3. the nucleosome; mRNA synthesis; amino acids 4. the nucleolus; rRNA synthesis; proteins (enzymes) 56. In which of the following tissues would cell division occur very infrequently, it at all: 1. bone marrow 2. Skin 3. Intestinal tract 4. Brain 5. All of these 6. None of these 57. Consider the figure to the right. At which step would CDK be prepared to activate DNA synthesis? 1. Step 1 2. Step 2 3. Step 3 4. Step 4 58. Which of the following stages is characterized by synthesis and replication of DNA? 1. G0 2. G1 3. G2 4. G3 5. S 6. All of these 7. None of these 59. How is the activity of cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdks) regulated? 1. Growth factors 2. Phosphorylation 3. Presence or absence of cyclins 4. All of the above 5. None of the above 60. At which stage in the cell cycle does a cell make a commitment to undergo DNA replication and, therefore, cell division? And, if things are out-of-whack, the cell can reverse the decision and move backwards in the cell cycle (T/F). 1. At the G1/S checkpoint; F 2. At the G2/M checkpoint; F 3. At the spindle checkpoint; T 4. At cytokinesis; T 5. At the G0/ G1 checkpoint; F 6. At any of the above; T